In ope-l 3150, Duncan wrote:
"I still don't think the [TSS] examples can support the interpretation that a
falling rate of profit arises from technical changes that increase the
productivity of both labor and capital inputs."
Do you mean that you don't accept the TSS interpretation of the determination
of value in Marx's theory, and therefore don't accept the corresponding
measure of profitability?
Or do you mean that one can't generate TSS examples in which the productivity
of both labor and capital inputs increases and the rate of profit falls?
Andrew Kliman