fred wrote in [OPE-L:3864]:
> However, the two aggregate equalities do not depend on this equalization.
> The two equalities mean that the sums of individual prices and the sum of
> individual profits are equal to the total price and the total profit (or
> surplus-value).
This is a tautology and, as such, can't be discussed or refuted.
You also seem to be suggesting that the sum of values equals the sum of
market prices (a stronger claim than the one arguing that the sum of value
equals the sum of prices of production). *How* can this be the case
*except* as an assumption?
Suppose the sum of market prices goes up by 10%. Does this mean that there
is an _instantaneous_ increase in the sum of value by 10%? Perhaps we
should discuss *inflation* and the _changing relation over time_ between
value and market prices.
In solidarity, Jerry