[OPE-L:4591] Re: Vintages

aramos@aramos.b (aramos@aramos.bo)
Fri, 28 Mar 1997 14:16:04 -0800 (PST)

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Hi John:

I am really enjoying this but just now my time is over. So, only a
brief comment:

You say:

> Technically, for Marx, there is one measure of value -- money.

I comment:

1. What do you mean for "technically"?

2. I disagree:

Money as the measure of value, is the phenomenal form that
must of necessity be assumed by that measure of value which
is immanent in commodities, labour-time.
Capital I, p. 94, Intl.

For Marx, value has a twofold measure, money (phenomenal, external)
and labor-time (immanent), which is only an extension of the
"dialectic" of value: value-substance and value-form.

I am understanding you problems with the MEL but this requires much
more time than that I have just now. (Could you read my paper for the
Conference? This would save us some time.)

In any case, in Ch 12 example there is a "redistributive process" of
the given labor time. This process is accomplished necessarily by
means of money and then this requires the analysis of the mutual
relation between labor-time and money.

Alejandro Ramos