Ajit wrote in [OPE-L:4725]:
> So I ask you and the others on
> ope-l who believe in the 'market does it' theory to present their coherent
> case first before we prove our general charge. So let us begin with a
> simple question: when you say that a commodity, say x has 5 hrs. of
> labor as its value, how do you arrive at that particular quantitative
> valuation in labor-time units?
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*If* it's a commodity which is sold at its *SOCIAL* value, then the
quantitative result would be the same.
However ...
*before* one arrives at a "particular quantitative valuation in labor-time
units", one must first take a position on the conceptual issues.
(repetition follows)
For instance:
1) Labor-time in general does not create value -- it must be
*socially-necessary* labor time.
2) For a product of labor to be counted as a commodity, it must have a
*use-value* (and a value, including an exchange-value).
3) It can not be known prior to circulation whether products will have a
use-value since that fact or non-fact is validated or non-validated in
exchange.
In solidarity, Jerry