Mike W -- you make a very compelling case for why Marx does not
"need" a "commodity theory of money". Yet, I have what I consider
to be a prior question: regardless of whether he needs or doesn't
need such a theory (and even regardless of whether Marx was correct
or mistaken in this regard), why _does_ Marx advance a money commodity
theory? Was this merely a reflection of the historical realities of
his own time (an interpretation I find doubtful), or did Marx have
other logical reasons for wanting to make this connection between
money, value, and commodities? If so, what were they?
In solidarity, Jerry