>The problem that my example addresses is that
>wages accrue only during working time, but value increases
>throughout production time.
I have been following this discussion with interest. But this really
is a puzzle. Could we have more citation from Marx? More
clarification? I recognize and respect Andrew's desire to eschew any
suggestion of modelling, or even general exemplification, here. But
surely if this is to be an interesting case, it must be a widespread
(or otherwise significant) phenomenon that value increases when no
labour has been performed. I'm not even sure I understand production
time during which labour is not performed?
It sits particularly strangely with the earlier unproductive labour
point that, apparently, wage-labour can be performed but no new value
be created ... odd that.
-
Michael
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