[OPE-L:6526] Re: [OPE] What is prior?

Alan Freeman (a.freeman@greenwich.ac.uk)
Thu, 30 Apr 1998 22:42:21 +0200

Agree, of course.

I would go even further; I think he proved it, rather than just assuming
it.

I also think that the conclusion is completely general and applies when
profit rates do not equalise, when the MELT is changing, when there is
technical progress, and so on.

Do you agree?

Alan

Fred B. Moseley wrote:
>
> Marx assumed that the total amount of surplus-value is not affected by its
> distribution. For example:
>
> The total surplus value, as well as total profit, which is only
> surplus value itself computed differently, CAN NEITHER GROW NOR
> DECREASE THROUGH THIS OPERATION, EVER. (Grundrisse, p. 760;
> emphasis added).
>
> It is clear from the context that "this operation" refers to the
> distribution of surplus value through the equalization of profit rates
> and the determination of prices of production. This is the fundamental
> premise of the entire analysis in Volume 3, as I have documented in my
> two papers refereed to in recent posts.
>
> Alan, do you agree or disagree?
>
> Comradely,
> Fred