> "... were there to be no intertemporal phenomenon of value, and
> nothing conserved through time, then, as Marx insisted,
> investment and capitalism itself would be irrational at base."
>
> -- Philip Mirowski
Hmmm. P.M.'s habitual contorted grammar apart, does that mean
that if there _is_ an "intertemporal phenomenon of value", then
Maarx's insistence on the irrationality of capitalism is
unfounded??
-- Allin Cottrell Department of Economics Wake Forest University, NC