>a relationship of preference indifference can be
>construed to mean that bundles in the indifference set yield equal marginal
>utility.
I think the relation "Commodity bundle x is indifferent to Commodity bundle
y" means that they yield equal utilities (if there's a utility function)
not equal marginal utilities.
Duncan
Duncan K. Foley
Department of Economics
Barnard College
New York, NY 10027
(212)-854-3790
fax: (212)-854-8947
e-mail: dkf2@columbia.edu