[OPE-L:1259] Re: Advertising and productive labour

From: zarembka@acsu.buffalo.edu
Date: Thu Sep 16 1999 - 22:46:27 EDT

On 09/16/99 at 11:34 PM, "Michael J Williams"
<michael@williamsmj.screaming.net> said:

>The specific difference between productive and unproductive labour is
>that the former produces surplus value, whilst the latter does not. This
>has nothing to do with the nature of the use-value produced - except that
>for surplus value to be produced the product must be a successful
>commodity, and so must have a use-value for someone.

In other words, anything goes. If the product produced under capitalist
relations is "successful" (it sells?) then "productive labor" is involved.
Whatever shall be, shall be. Using the result ("success") to describe the
antecedent (type of labor involved) is circular, i.e., there is no
definition of use-value involved, only the result.

Application: don't ask what, if any, content Coke and Pepsi advertising
has, ask only if it is sells.


Paul Zarembka, supporting RESEARCH IN POLITICAL ECONOMY at
******************** http://ourworld.compuserve.com/homepages/PZarembka

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