Re Steve K's [6408] et al: Interestingly, in Marx's last writings, he refers not to the 'labor theory of value' (which as we have discussed previously with Paul Z was not an expression that he used) _or_ the 'law of value'. Rather, in his 11/8/82 and 12/4/82 letters to Engels and in the "Marginal Notes on Adolph Wagner's 'Lehrbuch der politischen Okonomie'" her refers simply to 'my theory of value' (there is a reference to the 'laws of value' in the 'Marginal Notes' but it is a play on words relating to the laws of the bourgeois state -- see p. 45 _Theoretical Practice_, Spring 1972, for both quotes). This raises the question -- what was Marx's _last_ reference to the 'law of value' (in terms of the date that the reference was authored)? Another question might be: of what significance (if any) does his later choice of 'my theory of value' have? Finally, one could ask in reference to Marx's theory whether the expression 'Marx's theory of value' is superior to either the LTV or LOV or both? In solidarity, Jerry
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