Re Rakesh's [6735] > , what about rentier states, in particular the Gulf States, > and the US struggle to control the disbursement of rent, i.e. channel > it into arms purchases, global covert operations and T bill > purchases? Is this an economic or non economic form of exploitation? > Or is it exploitation, strictly speaking, at all? Since you've asked short questions for a big topic, I'll suggest short answers: "Profit is theft". Is it? If it is, then surely surplus value must be theft as well, right? Now if you were to receive stolen property from someone else that would not change its character as stolen property, right? By the same token if there are classes (like landlords) that live off of the surplus value produced by others even though they received that surplus value as payment from capitalists rather than workers, it is still theft. Similarly, if there are other global mechanisms that redistribute surplus value then these are both economic and exploitive. OK, I realize that the above isn't the whole answer, but what is wrong (if anything) with the above reasoning? In solidarity, Jerry
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