From: gerald_a_levy (gerald_a_levy@msn.com)
Date: Sun Nov 10 2002 - 10:16:00 EST
Re Fred's [7980]: > I guess this could happen on rare cases. But this is not a problem for > the definition of the OCC. The OCC is still the VCC as it is affected by > technological change only, i.e. only by changes in the TCC. If a > certain kind of technological change reduced the TCC, this effect would > still be included in the OCC. The problem is (at least) two-fold: 1) the measure of means of production to workers employed is a very poor measure of technological change especially since the measure suggested for MP as use-value is 'mass'. Yet, increasing 'mass' of MP tells us what exactly about 'technological change'? 2) The form of technological change that Marx evidently assumed here was labor-saving technological change. What of other forms of technological change? For instance, 'capital-saving' technological change? Thus, it would be easy to demonstrate that where there is increasing technological change (understood more broadly than just labor-saving technical change) any one of three results are possible: a) the TCC increases (what Marx evidently took to be the 'normal' case); b) the TCC decreases (if there has been capital-saving technical change which reduces the mass of MP in relation to workers employed); c) there is *no change* in the TCC (if the technical change has a 'neutral' effect on mass of MP and workers employed). The possibility of c) especially refutes your claim that technological change would necessarily lead to a change in the TCC and thereby the OCC. [the possibility of b) and c) reminds me of the Cambridge Controversies that Simon mentioned]. > But I think Marx generally assumed that technological change would > increase the TCC, both because the quantity of raw materials processed per > worker would increase and because the system of machinery would be bigger > and more complex. Yes, I agree that this appeared to be his assumption. In solidarity, Jerry
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