From: Francisco Paulo Cipolla (cipolla@UFPR.BR)
Date: Tue Dec 02 2003 - 15:34:44 EST
Dear colleagues of OPE-L. Let me share with you this observation. On the one hand Marx argues that the transformation of surplus value into profit hides away the origin of sv in v and makes it appear as if it stems from the total capital (be it consumed or invested according to which we measure the increased value against cost or against advanced capital). On the other hand he says (International Publishers 1967, volIII p. 197, and in several other places as well): "a capitalist who would not in his line of production employ any variable capital... would nonetheless be as much interrested in the exploitation of the working class by capital". Here he suggests that capitalists are aware 1st. about the origin of sv; 2nd. of the distribution of sv according to the volume of capital advanced. Isnīt this funny! It is a question related to the issue of the awareness of capitalists of the exploitation process which was discussed a while back. If that capitalist employing zero labor were to be a producer of wage goods one would expect him/her to route for higher wages so that demand for his product could be greater. Paulo
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