[OPE-L:2110] RE: Why is Malthus correct on unproductive labor, according to Marx?

From: Gerald Levy (glevy@PRATT.EDU)
Date: Wed Jan 12 2000 - 11:46:12 EST

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Re Paul Z's [OPE-L:2109]:

> Jerry, in answer to your question in the posting, I could not find
> Malthus on the issue which might have led to Marx's favorable comment.

Then, I'll just have to answer my own question -- with help from Volume
31 of the _Collected Works_.

A note at the end reads: "Marx is referring to Malthus' remark that the
differentiation between productive and unproductive labour is the
cornerstone of Adam Smith's work and the basis on which the main line of
his reasoning rests (T.R. Malthus, *Principles of Political Economy...*,
2nd ed., London, 1836, p. 44 (p. 585 of _CW_: 31)

The moral of this story is to check with the _Collected Works_ rather than
just relying on the older translations (e.g. the Progress ed. of _TSV_).
yOf course, I am as guilty as the next person since it is easier to work
with the older editions if they are heavily personally notated and

In solidarity, Jerry

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