[OPE-L:2135] Re: Why is Malthus correct on unproductive labor, according to Marx?

From: Gerald Levy (glevy@PRATT.EDU)
Date: Thu Jan 13 2000 - 07:13:25 EST

[ show plain text ]

Re Paul Z's [OPE-L:2120]:

> Jerry, I don't get what you are trying to say, neither with regard the
> footnote nor with regard to any "moral". The footnote is not Marx's but an
> editor's.

The footnote indicates the source from Malthus that Marx is (apparently)
referring to. The next step would be to look up the Malthus citation,
don't you agree?

The "moral" that I was trying to suggest is that in the interests of
scholarship, one should examine the more scholarly collection of Marx's
writings (although not necessarily the _CW_; perhaps the best source, in
German, is MEGA).
> and my initial question would be unaffected by this editor's footnote.
> Actually, I am not so interested in Marx's opinion of Malthus as his
> opinion of bourgeois political economy and productive/unproductive labor.

But, I think the context of the quote indicates that he was really
referring to Smith's perspectives (this, also, is what the _CW_ note

btw, an interesting source on the concept of productive labor in the
history of economic thought is:

-- Sydney M. Coontz _Productive Labour and Effective Demand_ (NY,
     Augustus M. Kelley, 1966, with a short introduction by none other
     than William J. Blake)

In solidarity, Jerry

This archive was generated by hypermail 2b29 : Mon Jan 31 2000 - 07:00:07 EST