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Re Rakesh's [OPE-L:2854]:
> instantiations.
Define.
> Money however is a real hypostatization. As absurd is that is.
"hypostatize: ... to treat or regard (a concept, idea, etc.) as a distinct
substance or reality" _The Random House Dictionary of the English
Language_.
(note: the spellchecker in the Pine system doesn't recognize this word).
Why are you using words like these? If the reader of e-mail on this list
has to look up a word in a dictionary, then it is the fault of the writer.
It is true that money comes to be regarded as a "distinct substance or
reality" but it can only be fully comprehend when this category is linked
to other categories connected to the commodity-form.
> Money is simply a category mistake. Not Hegel but Ryle, correct?
A category mistake? How so? The category of money arises in connection
with the subject of the value-form since money is a necessary form of
appearance of the value-form (and value) in a capitalist economy. This is
the case irrespective of whether money itself takes the commodity-form or
not.
> The more we probe money the less we can discover the secret
> of its fetishistic power.
Thus we know now less about the fetishistic power of money than we ever
have in the past?
> I'd say it's not so much that there is no theory of the necessity of'
> money in Keynes (at least from the textbooks I have); there is simply
> no convincing theory of its fetishistic power, though of course this is
> what puzzled Keynes the most--how one this one thing can become the object
> of desire which cannot be readily produced even as the demand for it cannot
> be choked off.
Do you really think that is what -- "of course" -- puzzled Keynes the
most?
In solidarity, Jerry
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