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Rakesh, if you agree that Chapter One is about the capitalist mode of
production, then you have no basis for claiming commodities having the
"property of value before capitalism". That is, *value* is a property
within the capitalist mode of production only, just as is *surplus value*.
Paul Z.
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Paul Zarembka, supporting RESEARCH IN POLITICAL ECONOMY
******************** http://ourworld.compuserve.com/homepages/PZarembka
bhandari@Princeton.EDU (Rakesh Bhandari) said, on 05/07/00 at 10:15 PM:
>Even though commodites had the property of value before capitalism
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