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Oops as I was thinking through Mattick Jr's idea that only through money
measurement does the very property (variable value, some place in social
labor) which is being measured become real--that property otherwise being
at best undefined just as magnetic orientation in quantum physics--I
noticed that I may have missed a joke by Ajit:
>>Ajit:
>>
>>> Two different quantities of two
>>> different use values can be the same [weight] which does not derive
>>> from any physical property of either commodity. So what is the big deal
>>>about it?
Maybe I read this too quickly: their sameness derives from their equal
resistance as objects to being pushed around (that is, their mass which is
even a property of energy) as long as the gravitational pull is held
constant. Weight of course is also a function of the latter, but this does
not mean sameness here does not derive from any physical property of the
two use values having the same inertial mass. With value on the other hand
no physical property of the use values enters..
YOurs, Rakesh
ps sorry to Paul Z, Gil, and others for delays in replies.
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