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> Paul B.
>
> Does this mean that you agree with Engels that simple commodity production
> is both logically and historically prior to generalized commodity
> production? Does it also mean that, for you, capitalism can exist without
> wage labor?
>
> Paul Z.
>
Well, on the first question, if by simple commodity production is
meant the production of commodities in enterprises not using wage
labor, it is obviously historically prior. If you mean SCP as a
dominant form of production, I don't think that has ever happened. I
am not sure what logically prior means though in this context. On
the second question, my answer is no. But I don't see how the
statement would follow from mine. Obviously capital in the sense of
M-M' existed prior to capitalism (e.g., in moneylending).
Not sure what you're getting at, but I am interested in finding out.
Comradely, Paul Burkett.
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