I'm not sure if Rakesh is saying that Marx noted that all inputs needed to be transformed or some of the inputs needed to be transformed. Given we are dealing only with industrial capitals as Marx illustrates the transformation of values into prices and that some of inputs used by those capitals are products of sectors that are natural monopolies, it would seem that only some of the inputs need to be transformed. Clearly, there is no textual evidence that Marx claimed the prices of production of inputs must equal those of the outputs. At 11:12 PM 10/05/2000 -0400, you wrote: >In OPE-L 3968, Rakesh wrote: > >"Marx admits that the inputs have to be transformed into prices of >production. He does not say that they have to be transformed into the >SAME prices of production as the outputs." > > >Excellent point! > >Do any of the proponents of simultaneism out there have any evidence >to dispute this? > > >Andrew Kliman > > > > > >
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