In terms of the Levy-Perelman discussion, if the job done by the two commodities is exactly the same (e.g., simply counting things up or doing the exact same calculation when comparing a slide rule to a calculator), then it is clearly the unit value (value per unit of use value) that has changed. My guess is though, that that there are a lot more examples where the character of the use value changes along with changes in the value of the commodity that provides that use value. For example, a calculator can do things that you just can't do with a slide rule. But then there are other examples where a commodity crowds out other competing commodities because it has a lower value, even if the use value(s) it produces is/are in some ways inferior to the one(s) it replaces. In general I would think that the use value(s) yielded by a commodity are usually inseparable from the material shape of the commodity itself, so that changes in value and use value normally occur together. This is perhaps most clear in the case of services but I would need to think about this more. How would the connection between value and use value differ if at all for services compared to material goods? Cheers, Paul Burkett
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