In [OPE-L:4394], Rakesh wrote: > I call the above response to the transformation problem on the > assumptions of equilibrium thinking the > Shaikh-Gouverneur-Moseley-Bhandari solution. > It is of course possible that the first three would disavow the > affiliation. Have I missed something? Putting aside the question of the degree to which Shaikh's and Gouverneur's positions on the TP are similar to your own (on the later question, I found Alejandro R's remarks informative), why should the Bhandari solution be understood as being synonymous with the "Moseley solution" (I put this in quotes because I don't recall hearing Fred refer to his "solution")? In solidarity, Jerry
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