On Thu, 23 Nov 2000, Rakesh Narpat Bhandari wrote: > You said that surplus value, defined as total value minus the value > of the inputs, would not be equal to the sum of profits in the final > modified scheme. > > I then showed that your definition of surplus value could not be > Marx's for it leads to an adding up theory of price. This is paradoxical. How can a definition on which surplus value is explicitly a residual lead to an "adding up" theory? Allin C.
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