re 4653 > >So may I infer from this that in your reading, one *can't* conclude from >Ch. 6 that capitalists must hire labor power as a commodity in order to >appropriate surplus value, simply because Marx avoids the question entirely >by assuming it away? > >Gil Gil, it is not immediately obvious how there can be surplus value since workers are free to sell their labor (so it seems) to the highest bidder. We have to understand what it is that workers alienate on the market (once we do, the basic confusion in Ricardian value theory between cost of production and quantity of labor is eliminated or so argues Marx) . What precisely do you think workers sell on the market? Themselves? Their labor? Their labor capacity? What is that? Is it a commodity? Best, Rakesh
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