Rakesh, sorry, my last question in the previous post should have accepted your caveat from a previous post for the sake of argument: "So the value of labor power seems to me to be shorthand for the value of the wage goods what has been needed to reproduce workers (of course as long as we are assuming P<>V; if the price of wage goods is greater than their value, then the value of labor power is the price of those goods, not their value). Strictly speaking, I do not think labor power has value but for all practical purposes we can determine whether labor power has been sold at or below value. But I am open to correction of interpretation." To re-ask the question, then, given your interpretation above of the "value of labor power", can we infer from Marx's argument in Chapter 6 that capitalists must purchase *labor power*--simply the capacity to work--in order to appropriate surplus value? From your previous post once removed, I got the impression that in your reading, Marx sidesteps this question by simply assuming it away. Is this impression accurate? Gil
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