Andrew, I would be happy to discuss my interpretation of Marx's prices of production and your criticisms of it (more forthcoming in a subsequent post). But I first want to emphasize where I think we are in the discussion of your interpretation and the textual evidence. 1. It seems to me that there is clear and explicit textual evidence that Marx's prices of production change only if there is a change in the productivity of labor somewhere in the economy. Jerry expressed agreement with this conclusion. Rakesh seems to also. No one has dissented. You have not provided an alternative interpretation of the key passages I have presented. 2. According to your interpretation, on the other hand, prices of production change even though there is no change in the productivity of labor anywhere in the economy (as a result of input prices not being equal to output prices). 3. Appealing to market prices as another possible source of changes in prices of production (at Eduardo's suggestion) does not help your case, because you explicitly exclude market prices from your analysis. Your prices of production change instead because you assume that input prices are not equal to output prices. Marx never said anything like this. 4. Therefore, I think it has to be concluded that your interpretation of Marx's prices of production is contradicted by the textual evidence presented thus far. If you have further textual evidence related to this question, then please present it. But that would seem to be the conclusions thus far. Do you (or others) disagree with this conclusion? If so, please explain why. Comradely, Fred
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