>On Wed, 21 Feb 2001, Rakesh Narpat Bhandari wrote:
>
>> >> Wj = Kvj + svj
>> >>
>> >> Wj: value
>> >> Kv: "cost price in value terms"
>> >> sv: surplus value
>> >
>> >Yes, that's my view.
>>
>> But Allin that's not correct since it implies
>>
>> (1) Kvj + svj => Wj
>
>What's the symbol "=>" supposed to mean? If it means direction of
>determination than the equation above implies no such thing.
Then if the "Wj=kvj + svj" equation does not represent the left side
being determined by the right side, what does it represent?
>
>The _determination_ of value is: value of means of production (other
>than labour-power) plus new labour-time. Surplus value is the
>residual: new labour-time minus value of labour-power (or at any rate,
>minus labour-time embodied in wage-goods).
If the price of wage goods were to rise partially as a result of
greater ground rent payments, your surplus value would only be
diminished by the rise in value alone of the wage goods which had
resulted from the resort to inferior lands.
So by your Wj=kvj + svj equation, the sum of surplus value and Kvj
would now exceed Wj.
One should therefore leave kvj out of any formula for value
determination or any expression of value and instead employ what is
implict in your formulation above:
Lmp + Lc = Value {Lc means current labor}
Once total value is so determined, then surplus value appears as
another residual: total value, as monetarily expressed, minus cost
price.
Once surplus value is defined that way--and in your uncorrupted
quotations from Marx, that's how he defined it--it follows that if we
are going to modify the cost prices by transforming the inputs, the
sum of surplus value has to be allowed to change in the opposite
direction. Which of course yields my set of transformation equations
in which both equalities are preserved by use of one invariance
condition. Of course I would only recommend this if we had to accept
the absurd assumption that inputs and outputs should be transformed
into identical unit prices of production.
Yours, Rakesh
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