In considering the effect of turnover on the rate of
rate of profit we generally assume that circulating capital
turns over n times a year where n is at most 1. What if
n is greater than 1? Let's say that n is 2 and that
we assume there is no constant capital. It seems to
me that if n were 1, then the rate of surplus value would
equal the rate of rate of profit. But now we have assumed
that n is 2. Is the rate of profit still equal to the
rate of surplus value?
John
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