[OPE-L:5624] Re: Re: Marx's theory as a quantitative theory

From: Fred B. Moseley (fmoseley@mtholyoke.edu)
Date: Fri May 18 2001 - 15:08:08 EDT


This is a reply to Nicky's (5617).  Nicky, thanks a lot for your post.

For purposes of the present discussion, we don't have to decide whether
the qualitative side or the quantitative side of Marx's theory is the most
important.  (I will come back to this question in a subsequent post.)  
For now, I hope we can agree that both sides of Marx's theory are
important.  My question in recent posts has been about the quantitative
side of Marx's theory, especially his theory of the magnitude of
surplus-value.  I would like to know how Marx's quantitative theory of the
magnitude of surplus-value is interpreted by the VF interpretation.

Marx presented his theory of the magnitude of surplus-value in Chapter 7
of Volume 1.  In Chapter 7, it is certainly true that, when Ls = 0 hours,
then S = 0 shillings, and when Ls = 6 hours, then S = 3 shillings.  More
generally, the magnitude of surplus-value is determined by the magnitude
of surplus labor, as represented by the equation:

	S = m Ls

as I have discussed.  Marx's logic in this chapter certainly seems to
assume a CAUSAL LINK between surplus labor and surplus-value.  

Nicky (and others), if the VFI provides another interpretation of Marx's
theory of the magnitude of surplus-value in Chapter 7 (or elsewhere),
would you please summarize this alternative interpretation for me
(us).  How does the VF interpretation explain why the magnitude of
surplus-value is 3 shillings rather than 0, or 6, etc.?  Or how does the
VF interpretation explain why the magnitude of surplus-value increases or
decreases?


Thanks in advance for your reply.

Comradely,
Fred



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