[OPE-L:5756] Re: Re: the infinite quantity of logically plausible social theories theorem (IQLPSTT)

From: Rakesh Narpat Bhandari (rakeshb@Stanford.EDU)
Date: Sat Jun 02 2001 - 23:07:46 EDT


Steve wrote in 5753

>
>
>But surely one hundred and thirty years of trying, without finding a 
>solution that someone else could not find a logical flaw in,

This is unreasonable. Some one can always find a logical flaw. No 
theory would ever get off the ground if it could only be cleared for 
flight after no one claimed to have found a logical flaw in it.

The way I look at is that there are different successful ways of 
dealing with the problem.

You have Fred's and Alejandro's argument that the inputs don't have 
to be transformed--there is no problem to which Marx ever gave his 
imprimatur; if only the means of prod are in the form of value, then 
you have Duncan's solution (Duncan's treatment of the money wage 
seems quite superior to taking the real wage as given, as Fred 
recently underlined); if both the outlays on constant and variable 
capital have been determined by simple prices, you have Shaikh's 
solution (with change in profit being accounted for by revenue) or 
Gouverneur's (which maintains as I have argued both equalities in a 
real sense); I haven't studied Andrew K's solution.

There are many solutions to a problem which itself is described in 
different ways.

I think it is a good idea that you do not reject the labor theory of 
value due to a transformation problem. However you characterize the 
problem--though there  may be no problem--there is surely a 
reasonable enough solution which should allow the theory to go on to 
the next level, i.e., to be tested in practice.  Of course as we all 
know you don't turn to the TP to bury Marxian value theory, but you 
have yet to find supporters of your logical criticism. So perhaps 
this is why you have returned today to your redoubtable (as you see 
it) friend--the TP.


>  is a sign that maybe this problem *is* insoluble--and that maybe 
>therefore there is something wrong with the initial presumption that 
>"labour is the only source of value, and value the only source of 
>profit"...

This does not follow. The reasons why certain interpretations may be 
flawed may have nothing to do with this foundational premise. By the 
way, no one maintains the initial presumption as you have stated it.

Rakesh



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