On Wed, 30 Jan 2002, gerald_a_levy wrote [6465]: > 3) Never one to shy away from controversy, let me > note that the above reference -- given the prevailing > anti-Semitism in Europe in Marx's time and given a > history by Marx of making anti-Semitic comments in > his personal correspondence (of course this is known > to us but was not known to the contemporary readers > of _Capital_) -- is suggestive of a popular prejudice > in Europe at the time: the identification of Jews with > money-making, saving, and lending. What does the cited reference to "Moses and the Prophets" by Marx have to do with "prevailing anti-Semitism in Europe in Marx's time" and Marx's own prejudices? Is referring to "Moses and the Prophets" supposed to be anti-Semitic? Paul
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