[OPE-L:7588] Re: Re: Re: RE: Fred's remarks on Marx, Sraffa & Rents

From: Fred B. Moseley (fmoseley@mtholyoke.edu)
Date: Tue Sep 03 2002 - 08:35:15 EDT


On Sun, 25 Aug 2002, Rakesh Bhandari wrote:

> Fred writes in 7541:
> 
> >
> >3.  Marx explained the existence of absolute rent in the following way:
> >
> >The prices of agricultural (and mineral) commodities are not equal to the
> >PRICES OF PRODUCTION of these commodities, but are instead equal to the
> >VALUES of these commodities, i.e. are proportional to the labor-time
> >requirements to produce these commodities; and more specifically, are
> >proportional to the labor-times required on the least fertile land.
> 
> There would be reason to believe that the purchasing power of gold 
> would be determined by its value if through variation in output 
> capitalists could regulate supply so as to ensure gold in fact 
> exchanges at its value.
> 
> But there is no such mechanism to control the supply of gold which is 
> hardly affected by the output decisions of capitalists.


Rakesh, I think we need to distinguish here between the "purchasing
power" of gold and the "value product" of the gold industry.  The
"purchasing power" (which you emphasize) is the exchange-ratios of gold
with all other commodities, i.e. the inverse of the average price level of
all other commodities.  The "value product" of the gold industry, on the
other hand, is a definite quantity of money.  It is not a commodity with a
price (C'), which still has to be sold in order to be converted into money
(C'- M'), as in all other industries.  The circulation of capital in the
gold industry is different from all other industries, and is represented
symbolically by :
	M - C ... P ... M'
with the usual C' missing after production.  

Because gold has no price, the transformation of the price from value to
price of production is NOT POSSIBLE for gold.  After the transformation of
the prices of all other commodities from values to prices of production,
the value product of the gold industry continues to be the same quantity
of money, which cannot be transformed from value to price of production
(i.e. cannot be changed into a different quantity of money) in order to
equalize the rate of profit in the gold industry.  

The value product of the gold industry is proportional to the labor-time
required to produce it (i.e. is equal to its value).  If one hour of labor
produces m oz. of gold, then L hours of labor produces mL oz. of
gold.  This quantity of gold cannot be transformed into a different
quantity of money that would be equal to the "price of production" of
gold.  The price of production of gold does not exist.  The value product
of the gold industry always remains equal to the quantity of gold
produced.

Since the transformation of value into price of production does not apply
to gold, neither does the transformation of surplus-value into
profit.  The profit appropriated in the gold industry is always equal to
the surplus-value produced in the gold industry, which also is a definite
quantity of gold produced.  Therefore, there is no sharing of
surplus-value back and forth between the gold industry and other
industries.  

This impossibility of transforming surplus- value into profit for the gold
industry implies that there is no sharing of surplus-value between the
gold industry and other industries, because the only way such sharing of
surplus-value couldl take place is the the transformation of values into
prices of production.  This impossibility of sharing surplus-value with
other industries in turn implies that the amount of surplus-value and the
rate of profit in the gold industry are determined independently of all
other industries.  This is the most fundamental reason why Gil's
"accounting equation" for the gold industry is not an accurate expression
of Marx's theory, because it assumes that the gold industry participates
in the sharing of surplus-value and the equalization of profit rates like
all other industries.  But this is not true.  

The purchasing power of gold, i.e. the inverse of the average price of
other commodities, is a different matter.  Under the abstract assumption
of Volume 1, in which the prices of all commodities are assumed to be
equal to their values, i.e. proportional to the labor time required to
produce them, the prices of all commodities, and hence the purchasing
power of gold, are determined by the relative values of gold and other
commodities, i.e. by the relative labor-times required to produce gold and
other commodities, as Marx discussed at length in Part 1 of Volume 1.  

Now the question is: what happens to the purchasing power of gold as a
result of the equalization of the profit rate in the gold industry?  Marx
never discussed this question, so far as I know.  But I think we can
deduce the answer that is provided by Marx's theory.

The purchasing power of gold depends on the prices of other commodities
and will change if and only if the prices of other commodities change as a
result of the equalization of the rate of profit in the gold
industry.  What happens to the prices of other commodities, and hence to
the purchasing power of gold, as a result of the equalization of the
profit rate in the gold industry depends on the composition of capital in
the least productive gold mines.

Assume for example to begin with that the composition of capital in the
least productive gold mines is less than the social average composition of
capital - which I have argued is the most likely case.  In this case, the
rate of profit in the gold industry will be above the average rate of
profit in other industries, yielding a surplus profit for the gold
capitalists as absolute rent.  This surplus profit will not be competed
away, because the monopoly ownership of the gold mines by the gold
capitalists does not allow the entry of competing capitalists.  Thus the
prices of other commodities do not change, and hence the purchasing power
of gold does not change and continues in this case to be determined solely
by its value, as before.  

Assume next the unlikely case that the composition of capital in the least
productive gold mines is greater than the social average.  In this case,
the rate of profit in the gold industry would be below the average rate of
profit in other industries, and there would be no absolute
rent.  Therefore, gold capitalists may withdraw capital from the gold
industry and reduce production.  However, as you have pointed out, the
effect of such a reduction on current production is very small, because of
the large existing stock of gold still in circulation.  But assume at
least a small excess demand for gold, resulting from the reduction of
current production.  Excess demand for gold cannot cause an increase the
price of gold (as it does for other commodities) because gold has no
price.  Instead excess demand for gold (or insufficient supply) would
reduce the price of all other commodities (as I have discussed in previous
posts).  In this way, the purchasing power of gold would increase, and no
longer be determined solely by its value, as before.  Also, the rate of
profit in the gold industry might increase a little, because of cheaper
inputs, but (as I have discussed), this increase in the rate of profit is
likely to be very small.  

Again, I consider this case very unlikely, for reasons I will discuss in a
following post.   But even if it were to occur, and even if the purchasing
power of gold were to change in this way, the value product of the gold
industry (the quantity of gold currently produced) would still be
determined solely by the labor-time required to produce it.  And the
profit appropriated in the gold industry would still be equal to the
surplus-value produced in the gold industry, i.e. there would still be no
sharing of surplus-value between the gold industry and other industries,
which means that the amount and the rate of profit in the gold industry
would still be determined within the gold industry itself and
independently of all other industries.  

Such a change in the purchasing power of money also would not affect the
general rate of profit for all other commodities, because the prices of
all other commodities would have changed proportionally.  Therefore, the
general rate of profit on all other commodities would still be determined
independently of the gold industry.

Comradely,
Fred


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