From: gerald_a_levy (gerald_a_levy@MSN.COM)
Date: Wed Oct 01 2003 - 19:37:18 EDT
A hypothetical question: a) Suppose there are two firms in the same branch of production but these two firms are in different regions (or countries). b) Suppose that the workers in those 2 firms work the same working hours, work to the same degree of labor intensity, have the same skills, and that the total quantity of output produced in each firm is the same. Assume that there is a uniform price for a unit of output. c) In the first firm (A) there are less workers (La) because output/worker/hr. is greater but La receive higher wages. In the second firm (B) there are more workers (Lb>La) and the output/worker/hr is lower but these workers (Lb) are paid lower wages than the other group (La). Suppose further that output/worker/hr is 100% greater in A than in B and that wages for Lb are 100% lower than those received by La. QUESTION: * Which is the more exploited -- La or Lb? In solidarity, Jerry
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