From: Philip Dunn (pscumnud@DIRCON.CO.UK)
Date: Thu Oct 02 2003 - 08:35:45 EDT
Hi Jerry This is an easy one. Since wages for Lb are 100% lower than those received by La, Lb get zero wages and are infinitely exploited. Yours pedantically Phil Quoting gerald_a_levy <gerald_a_levy@MSN.COM>: > A hypothetical question: > > a) Suppose there are two firms in the same > branch of production but these two firms are in different > regions (or countries). > > b) Suppose that the workers in those 2 firms work the same > working hours, work to the same degree of labor intensity, > have the same skills, and that the total quantity of output > produced in each firm is the same. Assume that there is a > uniform price for a unit of output. > > c) In the first firm (A) there are less workers (La) because > output/worker/hr. is greater but La receive higher wages. > In the second firm (B) there are more workers (Lb>La) and > the output/worker/hr is lower but these workers (Lb) are > paid lower wages than the other group (La). Suppose further > that output/worker/hr is 100% greater in A than in B and that > wages for Lb are 100% lower than those received by La. > > QUESTION: > > * Which is the more exploited -- La or Lb? > > In solidarity, Jerry > > > Philip Dunn
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