From: paul cockshott (clyder@GN.APC.ORG)
Date: Mon Dec 15 2003 - 05:35:53 EST
-----Original Message-----
* _If_ there is a relatively stable wage to profit share, what
are the 'systemic' causes 'absent the class struggle'?
[Paul C: could you try answering that question as well?
I don't really understand, based on what you wrote before,
what F&M and/or yourself, are identifying as the cause
or causes for this empirical relationship. I need to grasp
your answer to that before I can comment further. Thanks.]
In solidarity, Jerry
-------------------
I think that class struggle does have a role here. It is
easier for unions to win wages from firms which have an
above average profit share. This will tend to limit the
dispersion of the profit share. Whether this is a sufficient
explanation I am unsure.
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