From: Alejandro Valle Baeza (valle@SERVIDOR.UNAM.MX)
Date: Wed Jan 14 2004 - 14:16:19 EST
Jerry wrote: > > Gloria Martinez has research showing that, in general, rate of > > surplus value are higher in underdeveloped countries relative to rich > > countries. > > What is the full citation for the article (?) by Martinez? I sent in a previous message full reference. > > I am sure this is a puzzle to Marxian theory. > > What is the puzzle? If differences in the length of the working > day and work week (and hence absolute surplus value) and > intensity of labor aren't significant enough to account for the > differences in the rates of surplus value, then that should > mean that if the rates of surplus value are higher in the > 'underdeveloped countries', this should be largely due to > international differences in wages and benefits. Right? I discussed some aspects of this in a previous message to Paul Zarembka and in my paper in IJPE. In short: s'(U.S.) /s' (Mexico ) = f( productivity ratio, wages ratio, and current rate of exchange-PPP ratio) this mathematical relationship does not mean causal relationship. It means that you need to discuss all variable involved to be precise and clear. The puzzle is because Marx assumption: s' increases with productivity seems quite reasonable and empirical evidence shows that Third World countries are more exploited than Industrial Countries. However, Gloria's found that Marx assumption is right taken each block of countries separadly. Solidariamente Alejandro Valle >
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