From: Gerald A. Levy (Gerald_A_Levy@MSN.COM)
Date: Sun Apr 25 2004 - 08:58:01 EDT
At the most basic level, the rate of accumulation of
capital (and whether there will be accumulation or
de-accumulation of capital) depends on the magnitude
of surplus value productively consumed by capitalists
relative to the magnitude of s unproductively consumed
(i.e. used for the purposes of individual consumption of
capitalists).
-- What do we know about recent empirical trends
concerning the percentage of surplus value productively
consumed?
-- Is it greater than or less than previous periods?
-- To what extent are there significant regional and international
variations in the rate of unproductive consumption?
-- To what extent have the rates of the productive and
unproductive consumption of capital changed over the
course of the trade cycle?
(Note that all of the above are empirical questions.)
Pursuing a supply-side (!) theme, if state taxation of capitalists
and firms increases, doesn't that then leave less surplus value
left over for the purposes of productive consumption and thereby
capital accumulation?
Is there any evidence that in nations where the rate of taxation on
capitalists is higher the rate of productive consumption is lower
and vice versa?
In solidarity, Jerry
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