From: Paul Cockshott (clyder@GN.APC.ORG)
Date: Thu May 20 2004 - 16:12:15 EDT
Consider an historical example: Wage-labor was desired for > Rhodesian gold mines. It was supplied, after 1892, by the British > instituting extraordinarily high taxation on peasant land in Nyasaland > (now Malawi), and so forcing sons off the land to migrate to wage-labor > employment in gold mines. Such jobs could provide direct help for paying > the land taxes or could provide a market for cash crops used to pay the > taxes (van Onselen, 1976). When the process, nevertheless, still led > lands into receiverships and a subsequent conversion of family members > into wage-labor work on capitalist farms producing subsistence crops, the > full result would be the conversion of all subsistence peasant farmers > into proletarians producing value. How would one mathematize this? or how > could the math in the article in question be interpreted to include this > example? > Forstater has a good analysis of this process at http://www.cfeps.org/pubs/wp/wp25/wp25.html
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.5 : Fri May 21 2004 - 00:00:01 EDT