From: Rakesh Bhandari (rakeshb@STANFORD.EDU)
Date: Wed Jun 23 2004 - 12:43:24 EDT
At 9:30 AM -0700 6/23/04, Ian Wright wrote: >Hi Rakesh > >>But for you this does not mean that value is undetermined before >>exchange. But Ian already asked: how do we the average level of >>technique before we know the level of effective demand. > >I didn't ask a question about this. Ian I was agreeing with you when you wrote: >Values can change with the volume of production (e.g., different kinds >of return to scale), and hence social demand can change values via a >change in the technical conditions of production. For example, a >really high demand can bring out-of-date technology to life, and hence >increase the value of a commodity (as discussed by Rubin in Ch.17 >"Value and Social Need", if I remember correctly). Nothing controversial here I think ... ? I think this conflicts with your earlier claim that value is determined by technical conditions alone, no? > Why do we need to know the average >level of technique before we know the level of effective demand? Values are determined as socially necessary average labour time needed to reproduce a commodity, no? To know that average we need to know level of social demand as you argue above, no? > There >are lots of real production possibilities (i.e., possible values for >use-values). Some of them become actual when the level of demand >changes, some never do. Do you see a problem with this Rakesh? Not at all. Yours, R >I do >not ... but could be wrong. > >ATB, >-Ian.
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