From: Paul Cockshott (wpc@DCS.GLA.AC.UK)
Date: Thu Sep 16 2004 - 04:47:03 EDT
Julian ---------- If memory serves the 50:50 split in F&M is deduced as a consequence of Lukacs' Theorem, in the (arguably very special?) case that the rate of surplus value has a *degenerate* distribution, i.e. has a uniform value. Since the theorem concerns a property unique to the gamma (and which is indeed used as a test for "gamma-ness" of data -- I can dig out ref.s if needed) I don't readily see how it might apply if the rate of profit is not a gamma. Obviously if s/v has a degenerate distribution =1, then the global rate is necessarily =1. But if not, offhand I can't think of any necessary relationship between the global rate and the distribution: no reason, for example, why all firms bar one could not have s/v=0, and the remaining firm[i] having s/v = sum(s)/v[i]. Paul C ------ Farjoun and Machovers proposition that a) the distribution of the profit share will be Gamma b) that the narrow the dispersion the closer the wage share will be to 50% Is in principle testable. David has come up with some figures which seem to support the proposition, what is missing is a test of the extent to which the distribution is actually a Gamma one. However the interesting thing about F&M's argument is that it points one to look at something one would not otherwise have looked at - the dispersion of the profit share as a determinant of the global average rate of surplus value. As to all firms but 1 having zero s/v and the other having all the s/v, well there is no 'necessary' reason why this will not happen. There is also no necessary reason why my teacup should not experience significant Brownian motion, it is just the laws of chance are against it in both cases.
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