(OPE-L) feudalism and slavery: which was the more advanced mode of production?

From: glevy@PRATT.EDU
Date: Tue Sep 28 2004 - 12:48:39 EDT


Hi Paul C.

> Jerry I have never claimed that the law of value became progressively
> stronger in a monotonic way throughout history.
> The collapse of the slave mode of production certainly introduced
> a shrinkage both of monetary economy, commodity production and
> labour mobility. As such feudalism was far less influenced by
> the law of value than was slavery.
> The retrogression in general economic development associated
> with the collapse of slavery affected all sorts of areas:
> the effect of the law of value, the possibility of efficient
> bureaucracy due the collapse of monetary circulation, general
> levels of education, technical development, trade, division
> of labour etc. One sees the same effects both in
> Western Europe in the late 4th and 5th centuries as in
> Haiti after the end of slavery at the start of the
> 19th century.
> I know that Lynn White, argued that some technologies - iron smelting
> the stirrup and the uses of legumes in the agricultural
> cycle, did advance in the immediate transition to feudalism,
> but it is clear that the general division of labour, trade
> and commodity production experienced a profound retrogression.
> I do not hold that real history is one of monotonic progress.
> There are retrogressions caused by the internal contradictions
> of modes of production which are not necessarily superseded
> right away by a more developed mode.

Then, in what sense, could feudalism be said to be a more advanced
mode of production than the slave mode of production?  This
raises a number of interesting questions ....

In solidarity, Jerry


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