From: Paul Cockshott (wpc@DCS.GLA.AC.UK)
Date: Tue Apr 05 2005 - 05:26:19 EDT
I have only done time series for this in the UK from the 1870s to the mid 1980s. I am aware of a Swedish study covering the same sort of time period -----Original Message----- From: OPE-L [mailto:OPE-L@SUS.CSUCHICO.EDU] On Behalf Of Gerald_A_Levy@MSN.COM Sent: 04 April 2005 19:27 To: OPE-L@SUS.CSUCHICO.EDU Subject: [OPE-L] estimates of the value of c as a % of GNP? > The norm would be for > wages to represent a roughly stable share of GNP and for > accumulation to increase the stock of constant capital. Paul C, What are some empirical estimates of the monetary value of the stock of c as a percentage of GNP (or GDP)? Is the long-term empirical trend for this percentage to remain stable, decrease, or increase? (Note that I am not asking for a theoretical claim one way or another -- just empirical estimates in as many countries and time periods that list members are aware of.) In solidarity, Jerry PS: where we have both GNP and GDP data, which one should Marxians use? Why?
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