From: Gerald_A_Levy@MSN.COM
Date: Mon Oct 03 2005 - 08:05:25 EDT
Hi Phil: > Are you saying that use-value is constitutive of value in the sense that > an invisible value tag is tied to the use-value with non-material string? No, I am simply making what I took to be an uncontroversial point: the 'being' of value requires the presence of use-value, i.e. without use-value, there is no value. > And that the magnitude of value so attached is fixed for ever? Certainly not. Use-value is a pre-condition and constituent form of value. It does not itself fix the magnitude of value. But, if a commodity was presumed to have value and is later shown not to have use-value, then the lack of use-value can "un-fix" the magnitude of the value of the product. > That > would seem to make value a property of the use-value. Use-value, like value and exchange-value, is a social property of the commodity. In solidarity, Jerry
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