From: Andrew Brown (A.Brown@LUBS.LEEDS.AC.UK)
Date: Wed Feb 01 2006 - 09:31:12 EST
Hi Paul You write: "I was making very parsimonious assumptions in my post: a) Assume that the selling prices of firms are a random function of the value of their products." You seem to actually be specifying this function such that prices are proportional to values with a random disturbance (i.e. prices fluctuate around values with zero mean fluctuation). If so then you are assuming the famous aggregate equalities hold (with random disturbance). But isn't this assuming just what is at issue? Andy
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