Re: [OPE-L] price of production/supply price/value

From: Andrew Brown (A.Brown@LUBS.LEEDS.AC.UK)
Date: Fri Feb 03 2006 - 08:55:57 EST


You wrote: "On the other hand I do not expect that, subject to total
price=total value, then total profit=total surplus value. I would expect
them to be related but only loosely."

But the way I stated the argument was that, for any individual firm,
money costs (money measure of c+v) will be close to labour-time costs
(labour measure of c+v). The logic of this argument is that total money
costs across the economy must be very close indeed to their labour time

You also accept that total prices = total values. 

Total profit = total prices (money measure of total s+c+v) minus total
costs (money measure of total c+v). Both terms of the RHS are also equal
to their labour time measures so surplus value must equal total profit.

So I cannot have stated the argument you are making exactly correctly.
Presumably the problem lies in the treatment of 'v'. Let me know.

Many thanks

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