Re: [OPE-L] SV: [OPE-L] what is irrational in the functioning of capitalism?

From: Dogan Goecmen (Dogangoecmen@AOL.COM)
Date: Tue Nov 28 2006 - 16:08:31 EST


In einer eMail vom 28.11.2006 16:20:54 Westeuropäische Normalzeit schreibt  
sinha_a99@YAHOO.COM:

---  Dogan Goecmen <Dogangoecmen@AOL.COM>  wrote:
____________________________
> Actually, I do not understand  why  "labor" is
> particularly important in the context of  production
> of
> profit. Do we think that "surplus" cannot  be
> produced
> without labor?  But why can't we imagine a  system of
> production completely operated by  robots? In  this
> case, why can't we imagine the system producing  a
>  "surplus" and a market with prices of commodities
> with
> a rate  of  profits to boot. The question is, can we
> make a logical claim  that a system  of production
> without labor will not be able to  produce "surplus".
> If  not, then there is a serious problem with  Marx's
> concept of "surplus  value". Cheers, ajit  sinha
__________________________
> Ajit, surplus value theory is not  unique to Marx.
> Rather it is one of the
> most central  categories of political economy. If it
> was possible to produce
>  value without labourers capitalists would have not
> employed workers at  all. Your
> rhetorical question implies that production can take
>  place without human
> beings.  If this is what you mean, this a  science
> fiction. Regards,  Dogan
_______________________________
Dogan, Thank you for letting me  know that "surplus
value is one of the central categories of  political
economy". I would have simply ignored your patronising
comment  if it was true. But I'm sorry to inform you
that you are wrong and you need  to go back to your
basics of political economy. The notion of  surplus
value is unique to Marx.
Dear Ajit, it is kind of you that you did not ignore my comments. They were  
not meant to be patronising. If this was however your impression, I am sorry,  
that was not my intention. Following your recommendation I went to my basics 
of  political economy. (By the way I am not a political economist in its 
formal  sense. Though I studied political economy beside philosoph, sociology and  
politics, my degree is in political theory, and this is, I think, what I am:  
political theorist in its Smithian or Marxian sense.) 
Now, the result of my going back to my basics of political economy is this:  
Marx (and Engels) never says that the theory of surplus value is unique to  
him. He claims however that he explained the genesis of surplus value  better, 
he worked out its relation to constant capital, variable capital and so  on 
better. But he never says that it is unique to him. In volum 4 of Capital he  
discusses various theories of surplus value and tries to define his theory in  
relation to others'. And this is absolutely right becuase Ricardo, though he  
does not use the term, deals with profit. Smith talks of profit, extraprofit  
and, indeed "surplus". Therefore, Engels is correct when he says in the Preface  
to the English Edition of Capital that classical political economy was aware 
of  surplus value. (iI this is too short we can come back.)



I don't know if my English is so complicated that you
cannot  understand anything I have written. Where did I
write capitalists can  produce without labor now? And
where did you get the idea that my question  is a
rhetorical one? It is a question of logical
possibility. If a  science fiction is logically
possible, then that is a good logical  challange to any
theory that contradicts it. Cheers, ajit  sinha
Your English is not complicated at all. I know my English is not as good as  
yours (it is not my first language and I did not learn it in school. I taught  
myself English) But nevertheless I understand you very well. Indeed you  do 
not say that "capitalists can produce without labor now". But if you  think 
about the implications of what you write then it becomes (at least to me)  that 
this is in the air in your statement. For you say: 
 
"Actually, I do not understand why  "labor" is particularly  important in the 
context of production of profit. Do we think that  "surplus" cannot be 
produced without labor?  But why can't we  imagine a system of production completely 
operated by  robots? In  this case, why can't we imagine the system producing 
 a "surplus"  and a market with prices of commodities with a rate of  profits 
to  boot."
 
In reply to this I said that if production without labour was possible then  
capitalists (the owners of means of production) would have already introduced  
this system. Generally, I just wanted to say  that production without human  
beings (in capitalist society labourers) is impossible.
 
Best regards
Dogan






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