From: Dave Zachariah (davez@KTH.SE)
Date: Fri Jan 18 2008 - 06:34:59 EST
> * Are the wage-workers (the cooks) employed by these capitalist firms > productive of surplus value? Suppose one week of labour creates $100 and that the take-home pay is $60. A capitalist hires a servant for a week to do work at his home. Thus he has to pay $60 from the surplus earned from his business. Now suppose that instead of hiring a servant, our capitalist pays a firm to do the same service at his home. Consequently, he pays $100. The firm, who sent one of its workers to perform the service, has made a profit of $100 - $60 = $40. The difference between the two cases is evident. In the latter case, a firm has earned a surplus of $40 only by an additional transfer of $40 from the surplus created in the business owned by our capitalist. //Dave Z
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