[OPE] Robust correlations between prices and labour values

From: Jurriaan Bendien (adsl675281@tiscali.nl)
Date: Sun Jul 13 2008 - 05:04:43 EDT

I do remember, though I haven't read Cockshott/Cottrell's reply and Kliman's rejoinder yet. Of course, the supposed robust correlation is between OUTPUT prices and labour-values, not all prices, i.e. it applies to a fraction of the total number of prices (many prices exist which are not regulated by labour-values). Whether or not you would regard the observed correlation an established fact depends on whether you accept the procedure for estimating and measuring labour-values. Do you not want to have it discussed again on OPE-L?


ope mailing list

This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.5 : Thu Jul 31 2008 - 00:00:09 EDT