Re: [OPE] Question to Marxologists: Mode of production

From: John Milios (john.milios@gmail.com)
Date: Sat Aug 30 2008 - 12:10:00 EDT


Dave Z

you write:

>Nothing of your answer to Paul contradicts his example that a configuration of forces of production is compatible with more than one mode of production. Industrial production in capitalism and Soviet-socialism is another a recent example.<

Your argument could be correct, except in case that "Soviet-socialism"
is not a mode of production (MP) different from the Capitalist MP in
as far as:
(1) Socialism in general does not constitute a new MP but a regime of
transition from capitalism (the CMP) to communism (i.e. the gradual
"demolition" of the CMP), and
(2) "Soviet-socialism" shall be regarded as a form of capitalism:
State-capitalism.

In solidarity,

John


On Fri, Aug 29, 2008 at 4:18 PM, Dave Zachariah
<dave.zachariah@gmail.com> wrote:
> Jerry wrote:
>
>> So, I do't think
>> it's the case that a given configuration of the forces of production are
>> compatible with more than one mode of production. It's, of course,
>> the case that as a new mode emerges it "inherits" the forces of production
>> of the previous mode but - from the moment of its birth - the new
>> relations
>> of production alter the shape and characteristics of the forces of
>> production.
>
>
> I think this statement is really vacuous. Nothing of your answer to Paul
> contradicts his example that a configuration of forces of production is
> compatible with more than one mode of production. Industrial production in
> capitalism and Soviet-socialism is another a recent example.
>
> It is a different matter of the transition probabilities that each mode of
> production has between configurations of forces of production. The
> Soviet-type mode of production was incapable of going from industrial
> production to large-scale information production and processing.
>
> //Dave Z
>
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>



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